Accomidating slow learner
On the other hand, the 'tsch' in German has not 't' sound, no 's' sound or 'c' or 'h' sounds.There is no logical mapping from 'tsch' to the sound it stands for.
Jackof Oz , 18 February 2006 (UTC)Once you replace the pseudo-phonetic script with a real phonetic script, there is no scope of change in pronunciations.A letter should mean the same sound both internally (if you speak 'c' and 'h' together fast, it doesn't produce 'ch') and geographically ('j' sounds widely differently depending on whether you are in Germany, France or Spain.) deeptrivia (talk) , 16 February 2006 (UTC)The 'ch' argument is in itself flawed. Defined combinations of letters represent other sounds.As long as the relationship between the combination and the sound is well-defined, there's no issue. That sound is obtained differently in other languages ('cz' is Polish, 'tsch' in German, a single letter in Russian, etc), The same principle applies in mathematics.--Cosmic girl , 15 February 2006 (UTC) I've understood that in Latin America the Spanish pronunciation is regarded as a colonial thing, used only by people who regard themselves as an upper class. The article, however, puts the third (and derived) meaning in the forefront. In other contexts, Ehre can also mean "honor", and Herrlichkeit can also mean "magnificence, splendor", so the answer depends on what kind of "Glory" you want to say is waiting.Is it the honorable kind of glory, or the magnificent/splendid kind of glory?